NTFS Permission

Q1. Name the three file systems for installation partition?

• NTFS
• FAT
• FAT32

 

Q2. What are the benefits of using NTFS?

• Better scalability to large drives
• Active directory to view and control network resources
• Compression features
• File encryption
• Permissions on individual files rather than just folders
• Remote storage
• Recovery logging of disk activities
• Disk qoutas

 

Q3. List the standard NTFS folder permissions?

• Full control
• Modify
• Read and Execute
• List folder content
• Read
• Write

 

Q4. What is Access Control List (ACL) ?

• ACL is a list of all the user accounts and groups that have been granted or denied access to a file or a folder. When a user attempts to gain access to a resource, the ACL must contain an access control entry for the user account or a group to which the user belongs.

 

Q5. What is effective permission for a resource?

• Effective permissions for a resource are the sum of the NTFS permissions that you assign to the individual user account and groups to which the user belongs

 

Q6. Do file permissions override folder permissions?

• Yes, NTFS file permissions take priority over NTFS folder permissions.

 

Q7. If you do not have the permission to access the folder but have the permission on the file, then how will you access the file?

• You need to know the full path of the file to access it when you do not have a folder level permission.

 

Q8. Does the Deny permission override all permissions?

• Yes

 

Q9. Explain NTFS permission inheritance?

• NTFS permissions inheritance implies that the permissions assigned to a parent folder are inherited and propagated to the subfolders and files contained in the parent folder.

 

Q10. How can you prevent permission inheritance?

• You can prevent permission inheritance by setting an option of preventing inheritance at parent folder level.

 

Q11. Where do permissions assigned to CREATOR OWNER group apply?

• The permission assigned to the CREATOR OWNER group apply only to the files and the subfolders in the folder to which permissions are assigned and not to the folder itself.

 

Q12. List the basic guidelines to follow while assigning NTFS permisions

• Grant users only the level of access they require
• Assign group membership based on access to resources
• Deny permissions only when it is essential.

 

Q13. If an employee leaves an organization, what should be done to transfer the ownership of his/her files and folders to another employee?

• Log in as administrator
• Assign ownership permissions to another employee
• Notify the employee that he/she has been given special permissions to take ownership of files and folders of the ex-employee

 

Q14. Which special permission enables you to browse through a folder, if you do have permission to access it?

• Traverse folder permission

Storage Resources (Part 2)

Q1. What is File Server Resource Manager?

• File Server Resource Manager is a suite of tools for windows Server that allows administrators to control, manage, and understand the quantity and type of data stored on their server.

Q2. What is Share and Storage Management?

• Share and Storage Management provides a centralized location to manage the following server resources

1. Folders and volumes that are shared on the network

               2.  Volumes in disks and storage subsystems


Q3. What is the use of Storage Explorer?

• Storage Explorer is used to view and manage the Fibre Channel and iSCSI fabrics that are available in your Storage Area Network (SAN)

Q4. What is the use of Storage Manager for SANs?

• Storage Manager for SANs is used to create and manage Logical Unit Numbers (LUNs) on Fibre Channel and iSCSI disk drive subsystems that support Virtual Disk Service (VDS) in SAN.

Q5. What is LUN?

• LUN is logical reference to a portion of a storage subsystems. It consists of a disk, a section of a disk, a whole disk array, or a section of a disk array in the subsystem.

Q6. What is Disk Management?

• Disk Management is a utility for managing hard disks and the volumes or partitions. It helps in initializing disks, creating volumes, and formatting volumes with the File Allocation Table (FAT), FAT32, or New Technology File System (NTFS) file systems.

Q7. How many types of dynamic volumes are there?

• Simple
• Spanned
• Striped
• Mirrored
• RAID-5

Q8. What are Spanned disk volumes?

• Spanned disk volumes combine areas of unallocated space from multiple disks into one logical volume. They require minimum of two disks; however, you can use up-to 32 disks

Q9. What is striped disk volume?

• Striped disk volumes are made up of stripes of data of equal size written across each disk in the volumes. They are created from equally sized, unallocated areas on two or more disks. If one of the disks containing a striped volume fails, the entire volume fails, and all data on the striped volume becomes inaccessible. 

Q10. What is mirrored volume?

• A mirrored volume provides a copy of a volume on another disk. This is a fault-tolerant volume, which provides data redundancy by duplicating the information contained on the volume. The two disks that make up a mirrored volume are known as mirrors.

Q11. What is RAID-5 volume?

• RAID-5 volumes are available only on computers running the Windows 200 Server family or Windows Server 2003. It stripes data and parity across three or more disks. Parity is a calculated value used to reconstruct data if one disk fails. When a disk fails, Windows Server 2003 continues to operate by recreating the data that was on the failed disk from the remaining data and Parity.

Storage Resources (Part 1)

Q1. What is primary and extended partition?

•  Primary partition is an active partition where the hardware looks for boot files to start the operating system. Extended partition is created from whatever free space remains on the disk after creating the primary partition.

 

Q2. What is Internet SCSI (iSCSI)?

• iSCSI is an industry standard that enables transmission of Small Computer System Interface (SCSI) block commands over the existing Internet Protocol (IP) network by using the TCP/IP protocol. It provides the possibility of delivering both messaging traffic and block-based storage over existing IP networks, without installing a separate and expensive Fiber Channel Network. 

Q3. What is SCSI?

• SCSI (Pronounced as scuzzy) is a set of standards for physically connecting and transferring data between peripheral devices and computers.
•  

Q4. What is Distributed File System or Network File System (DFS/NFS)?

• DFS/NFS is any file system that allows access to multiple user on multiple machines to share files and storage resources.

 

Q5. What technologies are used in DFS?

• The two technologies used in DFS are DFS Namespaces and DFS replication.

 

Q6. What is the role of DFS Namespaces?

• DFS Namespaces enable grouping of shared folders located on different servers into one or more logically structured namespaces.

 

Q7. What is the role of DFS replication?

• DFS replication keeps the folders synchronized between servers across network connections. It replaces the File Replication Service as the replication engine for DFS Namespaces, as well as for replicating the AD DS SYSVOL folder in domains that use the Windows Server 2008  domain functional level.

 

Q8. What are Shadow Copies for Shared Folders?

• Shadow Copies for Shared Folders are point-in-time copies of files that are located on shared resources, such as a file server. Users can view shared files and folders as they existed at points of time in the past by using Shadow Copies for Shared Folders.

 

Q9. What is the use of Shadow Copies? 

• Recovery of files that are accidentally deleted
• Recovery of accidentally overwritten file
• Comparing different versions of a file while working

Networking with Microsoft Windows

Q1. What is Next Generation TCP/IP stack?

• Next Generation TCP/IP is a new implementation of Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) functionality for Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) and Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) to meet the connectivity and performance needs of today's networking environments and technologies. The features of the Next Generation TCP/IP stack include support for dual IP layer architecture for IPv6 and strong host model. In addition, it provides new packet filtering Application Programming Interfaces (APIs) and mechanisms for protocol stack offload. 

Q2. What is the role of Explicit Congestion Notification (ECN)?

• When routers become congested, the incoming packets fill the buffer, which in turn begins dropping packets. In such a case, ECN for TCP/IP provides a way for routers to inform TCP peers that their buffers are filling due to the congestion in a network and force them to slow their transmission of data to help present packet losses. 

Q3. Is IPv6 enables by default in Windows 2008?

• Yes

Q4. Can you uninstall IPv6 in Windows 2008?

• No, however, it can be disabled.

Q5. Which component makes it possible to use multiple protocols on computer?

• Transport Driver Interface makes it possible to use multiple protocols on computer.

Q6. What do you mean by unbinding the protocol?

• Unbinding the protocol prevents a network interface adapter from using one of the installed protocol modules on the computer.

Q7. Which component connects to the remote source of data, downloads the file, and passes it back to Windows?

• Redirector has the knowledge on how to connect to the remote source of data, download the file, and pass it back to Windows, which in turn passes it back to the user or the program.

Q8. What is the role of Server Manager in Windows Server 2008 R2?

• Server Manager helps administrators through the process of installing, configuring, and managing server roles and features that are part of Windows Server 2008 R2. It provides a single location for administrators to change the server's system properties and install or remove roles of features.

Q9. What is Windows Powershell?

• Windows Powershell is a command-line shell and scripting language to achieve greater productivity and make control system administrator easy. It accelerates automation of system administration easy. 

Q10. Which service helps in setting up new computers by using a network-based installation?

• Windows Deployment Service.

Q11. Name the tool used to monitor and assess system performance and reliability?

• Windows Reliability and Performance Monitor. It provides a Graphical Interface for customizing performance data collection and Event trace sessions.

Q12. What is Interrupt Request Line (IRQ) used for?

• IRQs are hardware lines over which hardware devices send the interrupt signals to the microprocessor.

Q13. What is input/output (I/O) port address used for?

• I/O ports are those sections of memory that the hardware devices use to communicate with the operating system. When a microprocessor receives an IRQ, the operating system checks the I/O port address to get details of the hardware device that has triggered the communication.

Q14. What is Direct Memory Access?

• DMA is a feature of computers and microprocessors that allows disk drive controllers, graphic cards, network cards, and sound cards within the computer to access system memory for reading and/or writing independently of the CPU

Q15. How does a Plug and Play device automate the hardware installation process?

• When a Plug and Play device is connected to the computer, a new hardware is detected by the computer and it searches for the driver, which is then installed, and configures the hardware to use the system resources.

Managing Client and Server Computers

Q1. What is device driver?

• Device driver is a software component that provides an interface between the hardware of a computer and its operating system. Hardware, such as keyboards, graphic cards etc, requires device drivers so that the operating system can detect the devices and handle them effectively and efficiently.

Q2. What do you mean by client and server?

• Client and server are two different machines (physical or virtual) connected in such a manner that whenever a client posts some request to a server, the server provides an appropriate response to the client.

Q3. What are the new networking features in Windows server 2008 R2?

• Direct Access
• VPN Reconnect
• Branchcache
• URL-based Quality of Service (QoS)
• Mobile broadband device support
• Multiple active firewall profiles
• NDF, Network tracing, and Netsh trace

Q4. What is the role of Direct Access?

• Direct Access enables users to access an enterprise network without the extra setup of initializing a VPN connection

Q5. What is the role of VPN reconnect?

• VPN reconnect automatically re-establishes a VPN connection as soon as Internet connectivity is restored, saving users from re-entering their credentials and recreating the VPN connection.

Q6. What is the role of BranchCache?

• BranchCache enables updated content from file and Web servers on a Wide Area Network(WAN) to be cached on computers at a local branch office, improving application response time and reducing WAN traffic.

Q7. What is the role of URL-based QoS?

• It enables administrator to assign a priority level to traffic based on the Uniform Resource Locator (URL) from which the traffic originates.

Q8. What is the role of mobile broadband device support?

• Mobile broadband device provides a driver-based model for devices that are used to access a mobile broadband network

Q9. What is the role of multiple active firewall profiles?

• It enables the firewall rules most appropriate for each network adapter based on the network to which it is connected.

Q10. What is the role of NDF, Network tracing and Netsh trace?

• NDF, Network Training and Netsh trace integrate the network Diagnostics Framework with Network Tracing and a new Netsh context, Netsh trace, to simplify and consolidate network connectivity troubleshooting processes.

Q11. What is Netsh?
Netsh is a command-line scripting utility that is used to display or modify the network configuration of a computer that is currently running. Both remote computers and local computers can be configured by using the netsh command. Netsh also provides a scripting feature that allows you to run a group of commands in batch mode against a specified computer 

Q12. What is the role of live migration in Windows 2008 R2?

• Live migration enables customers to move virtual machines from one host to another with no perceivable downtime. It facilitates hardware maintenance, and upgrades manual failover and the consolidation of workloads on fewer servers.

Q13. What is File Classification Infrastructure (FCI)?

• FCI provides a built-in solution to classify and manage files to users and help them to save time and money. Administrators can automatically classify files based on content and location, generate reports, and schedule file management tasks to manage data.

Q14. Explain the difference between Windows server 2008 R2 license and Windows server 2008 CAL?

• The Windows server 2008 CAL grants the right to a device or user to access the server software; whereas, the Windows server 2008 R2 license gives the license holder the right to create, copy, store and run the server software.

 Q15. Is Windows Server 2008 a prerequisite for Windows server 2008 R2?

• No, Windows server 2008 or Windows server 2003 R2 can be upgraded to Windows server 2008 R2.

 Q16. What is volume licensing?

• When you acquire licenses from Microsoft and its partners in certain quantities or volumes, they offer discounts from their retail product prices. Volume licensing programs offer companies of all sizes an economical way to buy and manage multiple software licenses for as few as five desktops.

  Q17. What is Software Assurance (SA)?

• SA is a way for volume licensing customers to keep up to date with the latest and most innovative Microsoft products. Customers acquire the right to install any new release of a product covered in the agreement during the term of coverage.

Network Services and Communication Devices

Q1. What is the use of network services?

• Network services enable computers to share data, processing power, and devices. Commonly used network services are file services, print services, and messaging services

 

Q2. What is the use of file services?

• File services are used to store and retrieve data files between devices. The different types of application of file services are file access, file synchronization, file backup, and file history.

 

Q3. What is the use of print services?

• Print services are used to share output devices such as print and fax servers.

 

Q4. What are the services provided by an operating system?

• Program execution
• I/O operations
• File System manipulation
• Communication
• Error detection

 

Q5. What is Load balancing?

• Load balancing is the process by which incoming IP traffic can be distributed across multiple servers. It increases the performance of the servers, leading to optimal utilization of servers.

 

Q6. What is messaging services used for?

• Messaging services are used for the communication among users. their applications, network applications, and individual documents. The user of the messaging services can be a user or application.

 

Q7. What is electronic mail?

• Electronic mail is a set of applications that supports the transfer of information and data between two network users.

 

Q8. What is Dynamic Host Configuration protocol (DHCP) used for?

• DHCP is a configuration protocol that allows a computer to be configured automatically to communicate with other computers on the network and provides a centralized database to keep track of computers that have been connected to the network.

 

Q9. What layer does repeater work on?

• Physical layer of the OSI model.

 

Q10. What is the role of Bridges?

• Bridges read the physical address of a device in one network and filters the information before passing the information to another network.

 

Q11. What layer does a bridge work on?

• A bridge works on the MAC layer of the data link layer in the OSI model

 

Q12. Can bridges connect networks with different architectures?

• yes, bridges can connect different types of networks, such as Ethernet and token ring.

 

Q13. How bridges prevents the formation of loops in a network?

• Bridges support the spanning tree algorithm, which helps in communicating with each other and negotiating which bridge will remain in the blocking state; and therefore, prevent formation of loops in the network.

 

Q14. What is the role of a Router?

• A router routes the packets between two networks. It reads the information in each packet to determine where it is going. If the packet is destined for an immediate network to which it has access, then it strips the outer packet, re-addresses the packer to the proper Ethernet address, and transmits it on that network. Of the packet is destines for another network, then it re-packages the outer packet and sends it to the next router. 

 

Q15. What layer does a router works on?

• A router works on the network layer of the OSI model.

 

Q16. What is the difference between static router and dynamic router?

• Static router is configured manually; whereas, dynamic router uses the dynamic routing algorithm to route the packets.

 

Q17. What is the role of gateways?

• Gateways translate information between different network architectures or network data formats. For example, it can translate TCP/IP to AppleTalk so that the computers supporting TCP/IP can communicate with the Apple brand computers.

 

Q18. Which device is used to divide a network into logical subnets?

• Router

Topologies and Protocol Suites (PART 3)

Q1. What is the role of  Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)?

• ICMP controls and manages transmitted information using TCP/IP. It is an error reporting and diagnostic utility that enables nodes, such as routers, intermediary devises, and hosts, to share error information with other nodes.

 

Q2. What is Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) used for?

• HTTP is used for transferring web-based information between client and server. It also defines how information is formatted and transmitted over Internet.

 

Q3. What is File Transfer Protocol (FTP) used for?

• FTP is used to transfer files between FTP client and FTP server

 

Q4. What is Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) used for?

• SMTP is used for sending emails between systems in TCP/IP environment. The mail objective of this protocol is to transfer emails reliably and efficiently.

 

Q5. What is Domain Name System (DNS) used for?

• DNS is used to resolve logical names into IP addresses. It also stores information. such as the list of mail servers that accept email for a given Internet domain.

 

Q6. What is telnet used for?

• Telnet is used to enable a remote terminal session across TCp/Ip network. It is primarily used on the Internet or LANs to provide a communication facility, which is bi-directional, interactive, and text-oriented, using a remote terminal connection.

 

Q7. What is Serial Line Internet Protocol (SLIP) used for?

• SLIP sends IP datagrams over a serial link and transfers network traffic over dial-up connection. It is often used where very low overhead is required. It is designed to work over serial ports and modem connections.

 

Q8. What is point-to-point Protocol used for?

• Point-to-Point Protocol is used to transfer network traffic over dial up connection and it supports compression, security, error checking, and flow control. It supports TCP/IP, IPX/SPX, and NetBUI.

 

Q9. What is AppleTalk Protocol (ATP) used for?

• ATP is used for MAC computers to provide connectivity to other computers.